rnpedia

By | May 9, 2022

rnpedia

rnpedia

rnpedia

rnpedia – sample questions

Text Mode – Text version of the exam

1. The nurse who provides teaching to the female patient regarding prevention of recurrent urinary tract infections includes which of the following statements?

  1. Void immediately after sexual intercourse.
    Voiding will serve to flush the urethra, expelling contaminants.
  2. Take tub baths instead of showers.
    Showers are encouraged rather than tub baths because bacteria in the bath water may enter the urethra.
  3. Increase intake of coffee, tea, and colas.
    Coffee, tea, colas, alcohol, and other fluids that are urinary tract irritants should be avoided.
  4. Void every 5 hours during the day.
    The patient should be encouraged to void every 2-3 hours during the day and completely empty the bladder.

2. A history of infection specifically caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is associated with which of the following disorders?

  1. Acute glomerulonephritis
    Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus.
  2. Acute renal failure
    Acute renal failure is associated with hypoperfusion to the kidney, parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or tubules, and obstruction at a point distal to the kidney.
  3. Chronic renal failure
    Chronic renal failure may be caused by systemic disease, hereditary lesions, medications, toxic agents, infections, and medications.
  4. Nephrotic syndrome
    Nephrotic syndrome is caused by disorders such as chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

3. Rejection of a transplanted kidney within 24 hours after transplant is termed

  1. hyperacute rejection.
    Hyperacute rejection may require removal of the transplanted kidney.
  2. acute rejection.
    Acute rejection occurs within 3-14 days of transplantation.
  3. chronic rejection.
    Chronic rejection occurs after many years.
  4. simple rejection.
    The term simple is not used in the categorization of types of rejection of kidney transplants.

4. When caring for a patient with an uncomplicated, mild urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse knows that recent studies have shown which of the following drugs to be a good choice for short-course (e.g. 3-day) therapy?

  1. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
    Levofloxacin, a floroquinolone, is a good choice for short-course therapy of uncomplicated, mild to moderate UTI. Clinical trial data show high patient compliance with the 3-day regimen (95.6%) and a high eradication rate for all pathogens (96.4%).
  2. Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ, Bactrim, Septra)
    Trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole is a commonly used medication for the treatment of a complicated UTI, such as pyelonephritis.
  3. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin, Furadantin)
    Nitrofurantoin is a commonly used medication for treatment of a complicated UTI, such as pyelonephritis.
  4. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
    Ciprofloxacin is a good choice for treatment of a complicated UTI. Recent studies have found ciprofloxacin to be significantly more effective than TMP-SMX in community-based patients and in nursing home residents.

5. Which of the following terms refers to difficult or painful sexual intercourse?

  1. Dyspareunia
    Dyspareunia is a common problem of the aged female.
  2. Amenorrhea
    Amenorrhea refers to absence of menstrual flow.
  3. Dysmenorrhea
    Dysmenorrhea refers to painful menstruation.
  4. Endometriosis
    Endometriosis is a condition in which endometrial tissue seeds in other areas of the pelvis.

6. The opening into the vagina on the perineum is termed the

  1. introitus.
    The introitus is the vaginal orifice.
  2. adnexa.
    Adnexa is a term used to describe the fallopian tubes and ovaries together.
  3. cervix.
    The cervix is the bottom (interior) part of the uterus that is located in the vagina.
    hymen.
  4. The hymen is a tissue that may cover the vaginal opening partially or completely before vaginal penetration.

7. Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of progesterone?

  1. Luteinizing hormone
    Luteinizing hormone is released by the pituitary gland.
  2. Follicle-stimulating hormone
    Follicle-stimulating hormone is responsible for stimulating the ovaries to secrete estrogen.
  3. Estrogen
    Estrogens are responsible for developing and maintaining the female reproductive tract.
  4. Androgen
    Androgens, secreted in small amounts by the ovaries, are involved in early development of the follicle and also affect the female libido.

8. When the results of a Pap smear are reported as class 5, the nurse recognizes that the common interpretation is

  1. malignant.
    A class 5 Pap smear, according to the Bethesda Classification, indicates squamous cell carcinoma.
  2. normal.
    A class 1 Pap smear is interpreted as normal.
  3. probably normal.
    A class 2 Pap smear is interpreted as probably normal.
  4. suspicious.
    A class 3 Pap smear is interpreted as suspicious.

9. For women aged 19-39 years, recommended health screening diagnostic testing includes which of the following?

  1. Pap smear
    A Pap smear is recommended for women aged 19-39 years, as well as for women aged 40 and older.
  2. Mammography
    Mammography is recommended for health screening for women aged 40 years and older.
  3. Cholesterol and lipid profile
    Cholesterol and lipid profile is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.
  4. Bone mineral density testing
    Bone mineral density testing is recommended for women aged 40 years and older.

10. Which of the following statements reflects nursing care of the woman with mild to moderate ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?

  1. Advise the patient to decrease her activity, monitor her urine output and return for frequent office visits.
    Management in mild and moderate cases of OHSS consists of decreased activity, monitoring of urine output, and frequent office visits as designated by the reproductive endocrinologist.
  2. Advise the patient to measure her weight and abdominal circumference daily.
    Treatment of severe, not mild to moderate, OHSS includes daily measurements of weight and abdominal circumference.
  3. Advise the patient to monitor her heart rate and to report if her pulse falls below 60 beats per minute.
    Symptoms of OHSS include abdominal discomfort, distention, weight gain and ovarian enlargement.
  4. Prepare the patient for immediate hospitalization.                                                                 The patient with severe OHSS is hospitalized for monitoring and treatment.

11. Which of the following terms is used to describe a procedure in which cervical tissue is removed as a result of the detection of abnormal cells?

  1. Conization
    The procedure is also called a cone biopsy.
  2. Colporrhaphy
    Colporrhaphy refers to repair of the vagina.
  3. Cryotherapy
    Cryotherapy refers to destruction of tissue by freezing.
  4. Perineorrhaphy
    Perineorrhaphy refers to sutural repair of perineal lacerations.

12. Of the following terms, which is used to refer to a type of gestational trophoblastic neoplasm?

  1. Hydatidiform mole
    Hydatidiform mole occurs in 1 in 1000 pregnancies.
  2. Dermoid cyst
    A dermoid cyst is an ovarian tumor of undefined origin that consists of undifferentiated embryonal cells.
  3. Doderlein’s bacilli
    Doderlein’s bacilli is one component of normal vaginal flora.
  4. Bartholin’s cyst
    Bartholin’s cyst is a cyst in a paired vestibular gland in the vulva.

13. When the female client reports a frothy yellow-brown vaginal discharge, the nurse suspects the client has a vaginal infection caused by

  1. trichomonas vaginalis.
    Trichomonas vaginalis causes a frothy yellow-white or yellow-brown vaginal discharge.
  2. candida albicans.
    Candidiasis causes a white, cheeselike discharge clinging to the vaginal epithelium.
  3. gardnerella vaginalis.
    Gardnerella vaginalis causes a gray-white to yellow-white discharge clinging to the external vulva and vaginal walls.
  4. chlamydia.
    Chlamydia causes a profuse purulent discharge.

14. The nurse providing education regarding sexually transmitted diseases includes which of the following statements regarding herpes virus 2(herpes genitalis)?

  1. In pregnant women with active herpes virus, babies delivered vaginally may become infected with the virus.
    Therefore, a cesarean delivery may be performed if the virus recurs near the time of delivery.
  2. Transmission of the virus requires sexual contact.
    Asexual transmission by contact with wet surfaces or self-transmission (i.e., touching a cold sore and then touching the genital area) can occur.
  3. Transmission occurs only when the carrier has symptoms.
    Transmission is possible even when the carrier does not have symptoms.
  4. The virus is very difficult to kill.
    Usually, the virus is killed at room temperature by drying.

15. An opening between the bladder and the vagina is called a

  1. vesicovaginal fistula.
    A vesicovaginal fistula may occur because of tissue injury sustained during surgery, vaginal delivery, or a disease process.
  2. cystocele.
    A cystocele is a downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice.
  3. rectocele.
    A rectocele is a bulging of the rectum into the vagina.
  4. rectovaginal fistula.
    A rectovaginal fistula is an opening between the rectum and the vagina.

16. Which of the following statements defines laparoscopic myomectomy—an alternative to hysterectomy for the treatment of excessive bleeding due to fibroids?

  1. Removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.
    Laparoscopic myomectomy is the removal of fibroids through a laparoscope inserted through a small abdominal incision.
  2. Cauterization and shrinking of fibroids using a laser or electrical needles.
    Laparoscopic myolysis is the procedure in which a laser or electrical needles are used to cauterize and shrink the fibroid.
  3. Coagulation of the fibroids using electrical current.
    Laparoscopic cryomyolysis is the procedure in which electric current is used to coagulate the fibroids.
  4. Resection of the fibroids using a laser through a hyserscope passed through the cervix.
    Hysteroscopic resection of myomas is the procedure in which a laser is used through a hyserscope passed through the cervix; no incision or overnight stay is needed.

17. Stage 3 of breast development, according to Tanner, occurs when

  1. the areola (a darker tissue ring around the nipple) develops.
    Stage 3 also involves further enlargement of breast tissue.
  2. breast budding begins.
    Breast budding is the first sign of puberty in a female.
  3. the areola and nipple form a secondary mound on top of breast tissue.
    In stage 4, the nipple and areola form a secondary mound on top of breast tissue.
  4. the breast develops into a single contour
    In stage 5, the female demonstrates continued development of a larger breast with a single contour.

18. When the female patient demonstrates thickening, scaling, and erosion of the nipple and areola, the nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of

  1. Paget’s disease.
    Paget’s disease is a malignancy of mammary ducts with early signs of erythema of the nipple and areola.
  2. acute mastitis.
    Acute mastitis is demonstrated by nipple cracks or abrasions along with reddened and warm breast skin and tenderness.
  3. fibroadenoma.
    Fibroadenoma is characterized as the occurrence of a single, non-tender mass that is firm, mobile, and not fixed to breast tissue or chest wall.
  4. peau d’orange (edema).
    Peau d’orange is associated with the breast and demonstrates an orange peel appearance of breast skin with enlargement of skin pores.

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